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It states on this site that severance payment is only applicable if the "Employment contract of a fixed term expires without being renewed by reason of redundancy*" and the definition of redundancy is also listed as:-
An employee is taken to be dismissed by reason of redundancy if the dismissal is due to the fact that:
1) the employer closes or intends to close his business;
2) the employer has ceased, or intends to cease, the business in the place where the employee was employed; or
3) the requirement of the business for employees to carry out work of a particular kind, or for the employee to carry out work of a particular kind in the place where the employee was employed, ceases or diminishes or is expected to cease or diminish.
Based on the above I don't understand why employers should be liable to severance pay if they do not renew the DH contract after 2 years?